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Microbiology Interview Questions & Answers

Below we have listed all the Microbiology Interview Questions and answers. Feel free to comment on any Microbiology Interview Questions or answer by the comment feature available on the page.

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Microbiology Interview Questions & Answers

Microbiology is the study of organisms, most of which are too small to be seen with the naked eye, including bacteria, algae, protozoa, and fungi, as well as acellular agents, such as viruses and prions. Eukaryotic micro-organisms possess membrane-bound cell organelles and include fungi and protists, whereas prokaryotic organisms—all of which are microorganisms—are conventionally classified as lacking membrane-bound organelles and include eubacteria and archaebacteria. Microbiologists traditionally relied on culture, staining, and microscopy. However, less than 1% of the microorganisms present in common environments can be cultured in isolation using current means. Microbiologists often rely on extraction or detection of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA sequences.

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An elderly Tongan male was diagnosed with multiple myeloma (a form of cancer) and has been treated with chemotherapy agents for two months. He was then admitted to the hospital with new-onset asthma symptoms that became worse when he was treated with steroids. Many small larvae were found in his sputum and he was found to have a hyper-infection with Strongyloides stercoralis. Which statement is false regarding Strongyloides?
A. Strongyloides is a common cause of iron deficiency anemia just like hookworm
B. The initial infection occurs when larvae penetrate the skin from the soil
C. Auto infection occurs when the ova hatch and mature in the intestinal tract and then penetrate the intestine to establish a persistent infection
D. Eosinophilia is present during the migrating phase of the life cycle
E. Recurrent bacterial infections can develop when bacteria are carried by the larvae into sterile areas of the body
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A 22 year old diabetic with poor control of blood glucoses comes into clinic with a 2 month history of nasal congestion and low grade fever. Over the past 3 days he has also had a painful right eye-it hurts to look from side to side. In addition he feels that his vision is impaired now in that eye. On exam his right eye appears red and swollen and seems to be pushed forward. His nasal mucosa on that side appears dark and almost necrotic. You should be worried about?
A. A zygomycete infection
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Meningococcemia
D. Trachoma
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Which of the following is the metabolically active form of Chlamydia trachomatis?
A. Elementary body
B. Jolley body
C. Extracellular body
D. Reticulate body
E. None of the above
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This year a report from India indicates that a single dose of Amphotericin B can result in the cure of Leishmania donovani rather than prolonged treatment by fairly toxic medication. If confirmed this will be a major advance in the treatment of Kala-azar. Which of the following statements is false regarding systemic Leishmaniasis?
A. It is spread by the bite of the sand fly
B. Macrophages ingest the organism and move about the body facilitating its spread
C. Diagnosis can often be made by identifying amastigotes in cells aspirated from the spleen or bone marrow
D. Untreated patients frequently recover themselves
E. Kala-azar should be considered as one of the possibilities in someone who has lived in an endemic area and has an enlarged spleen
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This year there have been 7 travelers to eastern Africa that have contracted Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. They have all presented in the early stage of the disease with a chancre of the skin associated with cellulitis (red hot swelling) around the chancre. Which of the following is false regarding Trypanosoma brucei?
A. Progression of the disease is more rapid in rhodesiense than in gambiense
B. Early diagnosis allows for a more effective, safer medication that can be used before the parasite reaches the brain
C. Rhodesiense has multiple hosts while in gambiense, humans are the only host
D. Epidemics of African sleeping sickness have occurred by person to person spread
E. Both are transmitted by the Tsetse fly
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Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by?
A. JC virus
B. Pumuula virus
C. Prions
D. SV40 virus
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All of the following statements about the M-protein of Group A- Streptococci are correct EXCEPT?
A. The amino terminal portion (distal portion) is variable, accounting for over 80 distinct serotypes.
B. M proteins allow streptococci to resist phagocytosis.
C. Antibodies to M protein confer type-specific immunity.
D. M protein is the major virulence factor of Group A streptococci
E. M protein is the major constituent of the capsule of Group A streptococci
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A 22-year old college student is seen because he has had severe chronic diarrhea and a stool for O&P is positive for Giardia lamblia. He has lost 50 pounds in weight and has been treated for Giardia on 6 occasions only to have it reoccur. You are concerned that he has an immunodeficiency and lab results demonstrate a very low IgA level. Which of the following statements would be false regarding Giardia?
A. It is one of the causes of H2S or rotten egg gas
B. It is often a self-limiting disease
C. A weight loss of 50 pounds due to Giardia is very unusual
D. You are not surprised when 5 of 11 dorm mates are found to have Giardia because it is spread from person to person easily
E. It often results in iron deficiency anemia due to gastrointestinal blood loss
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A 30-year old patient is evaluated for chronic diarrhea that has gone on for 4 months with a 20-pound weight loss. By history you find that he has had sex with men for 12 years. You are concerned about the possibility of HIV and his test is positive with a low CD4 count that makes you think of immunodeficiency. You order a test for Cryptosporidium in his stool. Which of the following statements is false regarding Cryptosporidium?
A. Most people who have this organism are symptomatic
B. Person to person transmission is common and it is seen frequently in outbreaks in daycare centers
C. It is fairly resistant to chlorine treatment in municipal water treatment centers and is a recognized cause of waterborne outbreaks of diarrhea
D. It is frequently associated with systemic symptoms of fever, chills and bloody diarrhea
E. It has been difficult to treat in immunocompromised patients and usually persists for the duration of the patient's life
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Blood banks in Southern California and Texas have done studies to evaluate how often blood containing Trypansoma cruzi is found in their blood donor pool. They have found that the incidence varies between 1:8,000 and 1:40,000 donors. If you were making up a list of questions to ask blood donors, which of the following questions would be least helpful in screening to exclude this organism from persons that have grown up in an endemic area?
A. Have you ever been bitten by a reduvid bug?
B. Have you ever eaten pigs, dogs, or other animals that are reservoir hosts for Chaga's diseas
C. Have you lived in an adobe hut with a thatched roof?
D. Have you ever had swelling of your eye that lasted more than 3 days?
E. Have you ever had a blood test positive for Chaga's disease?
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A 44-year-old native Nigerian who has lived in the USA for 10 years returned to visit his family in Africa and now presents with a history of shaking chills, followed by high fever and then profuse sweating. He states that this is the most severe case of malaria he has ever had. His blood smear shows malaria organisms consistent with Plasmodium falciparum. Which of the following statements is false regarding P. falciparum?
A. His symptoms are more severe this time because he has lost some of the immunity that comes with frequent recurrences of malaria
B. Taking appropriate prophylactic medication has an 80-90% chance of preventing P. falciparum malaria
C. P. falciparum causes organ damage in the brain, lungs, and kidneys because of adhesion of infected red cells to the endothelium of the capillaries which impairs the microcirculation to these organs
D. P. falciparum gametocytes are ameboid shaped
E. Plasmodium falciparum has the highest mortality rate of the four malaria species
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This year there have been 7 travelers to eastern Africa that have contracted Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. They have all presented in the early stage of the disease with a chancre of the skin associated with cellulitis (red hot swelling) around the chancre. Which of the following is false regarding Trypanosoma brucei?
A. Progression of the disease is more rapid in rhodesiense than in gambiense
B. Early diagnosis allows for a more effective, safer medication that can be used before the parasite reaches the brain
C. Rhodesiense has multiple hosts while in gambiense, humans are the only host
D. Epidemics of African sleeping sickness have occurred by person to person spread
E. Both are transmitted by the Tsetse fly
0.3 Rating
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You see a 20-year old female for complaints of vaginal itching, discharge, pain with intercourse and discomfort with urination. She has had 3 different sexual partners over the past 2 years. As part of your workup, you do a wet mount of vaginal secretions and see a flagellated organism about the size of a white blood cell with twitching motility that makes you think of Trichomonas vaginalis. Which statement is false regarding Trichomonas?

A. Men are most likely asymptomatic but efficient transmitters of this organism
B. The cyst form of the life cycle is the most common method of transmission
C. Simultaneous treatment of the patient and her sexual contacts will decrease the chance of recurrences
D. In severe cases the regional mucosa may be red with petechial lesions and the cervix has been described as a "strawberry cervix"
E. Patients found to have Trichomonas should be evaluated for other venereal transmitted diseases
0.2 Rating
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Which of the following best characterizes antiviral chemotherapy in comparison to bacterial chemotherapy?
A. Few drug targets, toxicity problematic
B. Sensitivity tests of limited value
C. Toxicity a minor problem, multiple enzymatic targets
D. Many more drug options are available to treat viral infections
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Helicobacter pylori?
A. Is the presumed cause of colon cancer?
B. Is the cause of most cases of acute food poisoning in the U.S.
C. Is the cause of about 90% of peptic ulcers in the U.S.
D. Is urease negative?
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A student returns from a student teaching assignment in Zimbabwe. On the way home she swam in Lake Malawi. She is found to have schistosomiasis. Four of the following answers are good advice on how to prevent schistosomiasis. Which one is bad advice?
A. in risk areas, don't swim in fresh water rivers or lakes
B. Swimming in chlorinated pools is safe
C. Swimming in ocean salt water is safe
D. Toweling off vigorously after contact with potentially contaminated water decreases your risk
E. Wading in water up to your knees is safe for brief periods of time
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A 30 year old patient comes in with symptoms of hepatitis. The following serological results are obtained: Hepatitis A IgM antibody negative, Hepatitis A IgG antibody positive, Hepatitis B surface antigen positive, Hepatitis B surface antibody negative, Hepatitis C antibody negative. This set of results suggests that the patient has acute?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis A and B
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A 22-year old Tibetan female is found to have a large multiloculated cyst of the pelvis that is removed and found to be due to Echinococcus granulosus. This is most unusual since most cysts occur in the liver or lung. Which of the following is false regarding Echinococcus granulosus?
A. The diagnosis in humans can be made by looking for the eggs in human stool
B. Dogs are the definitive host
C. Sheep are intermediate hosts
D. Humans are incidental hosts
E. Humans contract disease from eating the eggs excreted in dog feces
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Which of the following statements about the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine is not correct?
A. It is a protein-conjugated, polysaccharide vaccine.
B. It is poorly immunogenic in young children and immuno compromised hosts.
C. It is routinely recommended for immune competent adults and children >2 yrs. of age at risk for serious pneumococcal disease.
D. It protects against the major serotypes of pneumococci causing infection.
E. An adult with asplenia would be a candidate for this vaccine.
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Humans are the definitive host for Diphyllobothrium latum or the fish tapeworm which competes for Vitamin B12 with its human host. Vitamin B12 deficiency can result in an anemia with production of very large red blood cells, called macrocytic anemia. All of the following would prevent the spread of this disease but one. Which one would not be a method of prevention?
A. Avoid swimming in fresh waters that are endemic for Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Cook freshwater fish well before eating
C. Freeze fish that is going to be consumed raw which will kill the parasite
D. Provide sewage treatment plants that treat raw sewage before dumping it into fresh water
E. Avoid eating fresh water fish
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Latest 20 Questions
Payment of time- barred debt is: (a) Valid (b) Void (c) Illegal (d) Voidable
Consideration is defined in the Indian Contract Act,1872 in: (a) Section 2(f) (b) Section 2(e) (c) Section 2(g) (d) Section 2(d)
Which of the following is not an exception to the rule, "No consideration, No contract": (a) Natural love and affection (b) Compensation for involuntary services (c) Completed gift (d) Agency
Consideration must move at the desire of: (a) The promisor (b) The promisee (c) The promisor or any other party (d) Both the promisor and the promisee
An offer which is open for acceptance over a period of time is: (a) Cross Offer (b) Counter Offer (c) Standing Offer (d) Implied Offer
Specific offer can be communicated to__________ (a) All the parties of contract (b) General public in universe (c) Specific person (d) None of the above
_________ amounts to rejection of the original offer. (a) Cross offer (b) Special offer (c) Standing offer (d) Counter offer
A advertises to sell his old car by advertising in a newspaper. This offer is caleed: (a) General Offer (b) Special Offer (c) Continuing Offer (d) None of the above
In case a counter offer is made, the original offer stands: (a) Rejected (b) Accepted automatically (c) Accepted subject to certain modifications and variations (d) None of the above
In case of unenforceable contract having some technical defect, parties (a) Can sue upon it (b) Cannot sue upon it (c) Should consider it to be illegal (d) None of the above
If entire specified goods is perished before entering into contract of sale, the contract is (a) Valid (b) Void (c) Voidable (d) Cancelled
______________ contracts are also caled contracts with executed consideration. (a) Unilateral (b) Completed (c) Bilateral (d) Executory
A offers B to supply books @ Rs 100 each but B accepts the same with condition of 10% discount. This is a case of (a) Counter Offer (b) Cross Offer (c) Specific Offer (d) General Offer
_____________ is a game of chance. (a) Conditional Contract (b) Contingent Contract (c) Wagering Contract (d) Quasi Contract
There is no binding contract in case of _______ as one's offer cannot be constructed as acceptance (a) Cross Offer (b) Standing Offer (c) Counter Offer (d) Special Offer
An offer is made with an intention to have negotiation from other party. This type of offer is: (a) Invitation to offer (b) Valid offer (c) Voidable (d) None of the above
When an offer is made to the world at large, it is ____________ offer. (a) Counter (b) Special (c) General (d) None of the above
Implied contract even if not in writing or express words is perfectly _______________ if all the conditions are satisfied:- (a) Void (b) Voidable (c) Valid (d) Illegal
A specific offer can be accepted by ___________. (a) Any person (b) Any friend to offeror (c) The person to whom it is made (d) Any friend of offeree
An agreement toput a fire on a person's car is a ______: (a) Legal (b) Voidable (c) Valid (d) Illegal



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