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The CCIP certification ( Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional ) provides individuals with competencies in infrastructure or access solutions in a Cisco end-to-end environment.
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|Which three components comprise a Cisco NAC Appliance solution? (Choose
A. a NAC-enabled Cisco router
B. a Linux server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control
C. a Linux server for centralized management of network admission servers
D. a Cisco router to provide VPN services
E. a read-only client operating on an endpoint device
F. a NAC-enabled Cisco switch
|What condition must be met for the receiving PE router to install VPNv4 routes into
A. If at least one RD attached to the VPNv4 route matches at least one import RD
configured in the VRF
B. If at least one RT attached to the VPNv4 route matches at least one import RT
configured in the VRF
C. If at least one RD attached to the VPNv4 route matches at least one export RD
configured in the VRF
D. If at least one RT attached to the VPNv4 route matches at least one export RT
configured in the VRF
|After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a
plug-in did not access any of its dependent plug-ins. What did you forget to do?
A. enable the Dependent Plug-in check box on the General Tab form
B. configure dependent plug-in support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus plug-in rule
C. install dependent plug-ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug-in library
D. load the dependent plug-ins for that plug-in in the Plug-in Updates form
|The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP address pool of 30 subnets with
a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.168.10.0. Which IP address is leased to the end-user host on
the second subnet?
|Based on the Boolean order of precedence, how would Cisco NAC
Appliance evaluate the following rule?
A. (The Norton Antivirus is active and there is a recent Ad Aware log entry) or (the Symantec antivirus
process is active).
B. There is a recent Ad Aware log entry, the Norton Antivirus is active, and the Symantec antivirus process is
C. (Either the Norton Antivirus or the Symantec antivirus process is active) and (there is a recent Ad Aware
D. There is a recent Ad Aware log entry or the Norton Antivirus is active, or the Symantec antivirus process is
|What best describes the following configuration example of allowas-in? router bgp 100
address-family ipv4 vrf CustomerAneighbor 220.127.116.11 remote-as 123 neighbor 18.104.22.168
activateneighbor 22.214.171.124 allowas-in 2
A.permits incoming BGP updates defined by access-list 2
B.permits incoming BGP updates defined by class-map 2
C.permit incoming BGP updates defined by route-map 2
D.permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 100 in the AS path
E.permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 123 in the AS path
|Which description is NOT a topology where a central services VPN would be used?
A service provider offers services to all customers by allowing them access to a common
B. Two or more companies want to exchange information by sharing a common set of
C. A security-conscious company separates its departments and allows them to access
only to common servers.
D. Several interconnected subsidiaries of a company require optimal communication
between many sites.
|What are the two types of traffic policies that apply to user roles? (Choose
|Which three statements are correct regarding Layer 2 overlay VPNs and peer-to-peer VPNs?
A.Peer-to-peer VPNs require the establishment of virtual circuits to connect the different customer sites
B.Peer-to-peer VPNs require the service provider to participate in the customer routing, accepting
customer routes, transporting them across the service provider backbone, and finally propagating them to
other customer sites.
C.With peer-to-peer VPNs, the service provider is responsible for transport of Layer 2 frames between
customer sites, and the customer takes responsibility for all higher layers.
D.The implementation of Layer 2 overlay VPNs is the traditional switched-WAN model, implemented with
technologies like X.25, Frame Relay or ATM.
E.With Layer 2 overlay VPNs, the service provider is not aware of customer routing and has no
information about customer routes.
F.It is simple to implement Layer 2 overlay VPNs because the Customer Edge (CE) router just needs a
connection to the Service Provider's Provider Edge (PE) router.
|What is the result when the condition statement in a Cisco NAA check for
required software evaluates to false on a client machine?
A. The required software is automatically downloaded to the user device.
B. The required software is made available after the user is quarantined.
C. The user is put in the unauthenticated role and the software is considered missing.
D. The user is placed in the temporary role and the software is made available.
|What is a major drawback of using traditional IP routing over an ATM network when connecting
A.Each ATM switch in the path has to perform Layer 3 routing lookup.
B.ATM virtual circuits have to be established between the different sites.
C.There is high ATM management overhead between the ATM switch and the router at each site.
D.Each ATM switch has to be manually configured to participate in Layer 3 routing.
E.There is high PNNI overhead.
|Which three statements about MPLS VPNs are true? (Choose three.)
A. PE routers do not participate in customer routing.
B. MPLS VPN is similar to using the peer-to-peer dedicated PE router approach.
C. Customer can use overlapping addresses.
D. Each customer is assigned an independent routing table (virtual routing and
forwarding table VRF).
E. The P Routers routing table contains both the global IP routes and the customer
F. CE routers connect directly to the service providers P routers.
|What is a benefit of CEF switching?
A.CEF supports IP source prefix-based switching using the FIB.
B.CEF uses less memory than fast switching uses.
C.CEF is less CPU intensive than fast switching is.
D.CEF provides Netflow statistics with minimum CPU overhead.
E.CEF allows multiple data planes to share a common control plane.
|When configuring the Cisco NAM to implement Cisco NAA requirement
checking on client machines, what is the next step after configuring checks and rules?
A. retrieve updates
B. require the use of the Cisco NAA
C. configure session timeout and traffic policies
D. map rules to requirement
E. configure requirements
|A client has a network with wireless and wired users. The wired users run
mission-critical bandwidth-sensitive applications. The wireless users access web-based support portals
within the central office.
Given only this information, which Cisco NAC Appliance solution would provide the most fault-tolerant
option for this client?
A. one Cisco NAM and one in-band highly available Cisco NAS cluster
B. one load-balanced highly available Cisco NAM cluster and one out-of-band highly available Cisco NAS
C. one highly available Cisco NAM cluster, one out-of-band highly available Cisco NAS cluster, and one
in-band Cisco NAS
D. one highly available Cisco NAM cluster and one in-band highly available Cisco NAS cluster
|How do you ensure that the Cisco NAS has the most recent version of the
Cisco NAA to install on user devices?
NAA to all Cisco Each time the Cisco NAA is upgraded, the Cisco NAM automatically downloads the new version of Cisco NAS servers.
B. From the Cisco NAS Web Admin Console, enable Cisco NAA autoupdate on the Administration >
Software Update form.
C. The Cisco NAA is upgraded directly to each Cisco NAS using the Upgrade Server form available on the
Cisco NAM web console GUI.
D. Configure the Cisco NAS by selecting which Cisco NAA to upgrade in the Cisco NAA Upgrade form.
|Which default administrator group has delete permissions?
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Payment of time- barred debt is:
Consideration is defined in the Indian Contract Act,1872 in: (a) Section 2(f) (b) Section 2(e) (c) Section 2(g) (d) Section 2(d)
Which of the following is not an exception to the rule, "No consideration, No contract": (a) Natural love and affection (b) Compensation for involuntary services (c) Completed gift (d) Agency
Consideration must move at the desire of: (a) The promisor (b) The promisee (c) The promisor or any other party (d) Both the promisor and the promisee
An offer which is open for acceptance over a period of time is: (a) Cross Offer (b) Counter Offer (c) Standing Offer (d) Implied Offer
Specific offer can be communicated to__________ (a) All the parties of contract (b) General public in universe (c) Specific person (d) None of the above
_________ amounts to rejection of the original offer. (a) Cross offer (b) Special offer (c) Standing offer (d) Counter offer
A advertises to sell his old car by advertising in a newspaper. This offer is caleed: (a) General Offer (b) Special Offer (c) Continuing Offer (d) None of the above
In case a counter offer is made, the original offer stands: (a) Rejected (b) Accepted automatically (c) Accepted subject to certain modifications and variations (d) None of the above
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A offers B to supply books @ Rs 100 each but B accepts the same with condition of 10% discount. This is a case of (a) Counter Offer (b) Cross Offer (c) Specific Offer (d) General Offer
_____________ is a game of chance. (a) Conditional Contract (b) Contingent Contract (c) Wagering Contract (d) Quasi Contract
There is no binding contract in case of _______ as one's offer cannot be constructed as acceptance (a) Cross Offer (b) Standing Offer (c) Counter Offer (d) Special Offer
An offer is made with an intention to have negotiation from other party. This type of offer is: (a) Invitation to offer (b) Valid offer (c) Voidable (d) None of the above
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